Difference between revisions of "Marketism/initiation of violence"

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(Created page with "Marketists argue<ref name=gplus1 /> that there is never any cause for the initiation of violence,<ref name=gplus1a /> but also that ''threats'' to initiate violence qualify as...")
 
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Marketists argue<ref name=gplus1 /> that there is never any cause for the initiation of violence,<ref name=gplus1a /> but also that ''threats'' to initiate violence qualify as initiation of violence<ref name=gplus1b />.
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Marketists argue<ref name=gplus1 /> that there is never any just cause to '''initiate {{l/same|violence}}'''<ref name=gplus1a /> (also known as the {{l/same|non-aggression principle}}) but also that ''threats'' to initiate violence qualify as initiation of violence<ref name=gplus1b />.
  
 
This leaves open the following questions:
 
This leaves open the following questions:

Latest revision as of 22:35, 21 March 2015

Marketists argue[1] that there is never any just cause to initiate violence[2] (also known as the non-aggression principle) but also that threats to initiate violence qualify as initiation of violence[3].

This leaves open the following questions:

  • Does any lethal threat qualify, or is there a "credibility" criterion?
    • If a threat must be credible, how do we make that determination?
  • Is escalation acceptable (i.e. responding with greater force than was threatened)?
    • If so, is there any limit on how much escalation is acceptable?

Sources

  1. 2015-03-21 comments on Google+:
  2. ibid. "i would never accept anybody or any institution that would initiate violence.. PERIOD!.... there is never any adequate cause." — Dean R Black
  3. ibid. "Threats of violence are considered initiation of force +CWRE, just a fraud is still theft and plotting a crime is still a crime and not "free speech"." — Allballz