Difference between revisions of "Marketism/initiation of violence"
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(Created page with "Marketists argue<ref name=gplus1 /> that there is never any cause for the initiation of violence,<ref name=gplus1a /> but also that ''threats'' to initiate violence qualify as...") |
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| − | Marketists argue<ref name=gplus1 /> that there is never any cause for the initiation of violence,<ref name=gplus1a /> but also that ''threats'' to initiate violence qualify as initiation of violence<ref name=gplus1b />. | + | Marketists argue<ref name=gplus1 /> that there is never any cause for the initiation of {{l/same|violence}},<ref name=gplus1a /> but also that ''threats'' to initiate violence qualify as initiation of violence<ref name=gplus1b />. |
This leaves open the following questions: | This leaves open the following questions: | ||
Revision as of 21:36, 21 March 2015
Marketists argue[1] that there is never any cause for the initiation of violence,[2] but also that threats to initiate violence qualify as initiation of violence[3].
This leaves open the following questions:
- Does any lethal threat qualify, or is there a "credibility" criterion?
- If a threat must be credible, how do we make that determination?
- Is escalation acceptable (i.e. responding with greater force than was threatened)?
- If so, is there any limit on how much escalation is acceptable?
Sources
- ↑ 2015-03-21 comments on Google+:
- ↑ ibid. "i would never accept anybody or any institution that would initiate violence.. PERIOD!.... there is never any adequate cause." — Dean R Black
- ↑ ibid. "Threats of violence are considered initiation of force +CWRE, just a fraud is still theft and plotting a crime is still a crime and not "free speech"." — Allballz